I happened to see this problem on Twitter. It reminded me of my secondary school when I was passionate about solving math problems :)... I am thinking of a little corner of this blog for this sort of exercising.

Claim: If pp is prime, all the coefficients in (a+b)p(a+b)^p except the first and the last are divisible by pp.

Equivalent claim: If pp is prime, p∣Ck_pp \mid C^k\_p for all k,0<k<pk, 0<k<p.

Proof.

Ck_p=p!k!(p−k)!=p(p−1)!k!(p−k)!C^k\_p = \frac{p!}{k! (p-k)!} = \frac{p(p-1)!}{k! (p-k)!}

Let x=(p−1)!,y=k!(p−k)!x = (p-1)!, y = k!(p-k)!. Then Ck_p=pxyC^k\_p = \frac{px}{y}

Ck_p∈Z  ⟹  y∣px(∗)C^k\_p \in \mathbb{Z} \implies y \mid px \hspace{5pt} (*)

We know that ∀z<p:gcd(p,z)=1\forall z<p: gcd(p, z) = 1. So, ∀z<p:gcd(p,z!)=1\forall z<p: gcd(p, z!) = 1.

Because k,p−k<pk, p-k < p, we have gcd(p,k!)=gcd(p,(p−k)!)=1gcd(p, k!) = gcd(p, (p-k)!) = 1

  ⟹  gcd(p,y)=1(∗∗)\implies gcd(p, y) = 1 \hspace{5pt} (**)

From (∗)(*), (∗∗)(**)   ⟹  y∣x  ⟹  p∣p  xy=Ck_p\implies y \mid x \implies p \mid p \;\frac{x}{y} = C^k\_p ■