I happened to see this problem on Twitter. It reminded me of my secondary school when I was passionate about solving math problems :)... I am thinking of a little corner of this blog for this sort of exercising.

Claim: If pp is prime, all the coefficients in (a+b)p(a+b)^p except the first and the last are divisible by pp.

Equivalent claim: If pp is prime, pCk_pp \mid C^k\_p for all k,0<k<pk, 0<k<p.

Proof.

Ck_p=p!k!(pk)!=p(p1)!k!(pk)!C^k\_p = \frac{p!}{k! (p-k)!} = \frac{p(p-1)!}{k! (p-k)!}

Let x=(p1)!,y=k!(pk)!x = (p-1)!, y = k!(p-k)!. Then Ck_p=pxyC^k\_p = \frac{px}{y}

Ck_pZ    ypx()C^k\_p \in \mathbb{Z} \implies y \mid px \hspace{5pt} (*)

We know that z<p:gcd(p,z)=1\forall z<p: gcd(p, z) = 1. So, z<p:gcd(p,z!)=1\forall z<p: gcd(p, z!) = 1.

Because k,pk<pk, p-k < p, we have gcd(p,k!)=gcd(p,(pk)!)=1gcd(p, k!) = gcd(p, (p-k)!) = 1

    gcd(p,y)=1()\implies gcd(p, y) = 1 \hspace{5pt} (**)

From ()(*), ()(**)     yx    pp  xy=Ck_p\implies y \mid x \implies p \mid p \;\frac{x}{y} = C^k\_p